Chapter 1
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A person who argues that the body and mind consist of physical matter and energy believes in
animism.
dualism.
monism.
ethnocentrism.
The phenomenon of blindsight confirms that
visual information must enter our consciousness for us to respond appropriately.
consciousness is not a general property of all parts of the brain.
there is no evolutionary advantage to possessing two visual systems.
the mammalian visual system is responsible for consciousness.
The right hemisphere of a  person who has had a split-brain operation can no longer
perceive sensory information.
understand verbal instructions.
produce speech.
control movements of the right hand.
The effects of the split-brain operation suggest that
consciousness developed in the right hemisphere.
the left hemisphere is more adept at analyzing sensory information than the right hemisphere.
all cognitive processes are located in the left hemisphere.
information does not reach consciousness unless it reaches those parts of the brain responsible for verbal communication.
A researcher concluded that a drug made animals eat because it altered the insulin level in their blood. What kind of explanation did the researcher provide?
generalization
reduction
rationalization
deduction
Models, first used by Descartes to study how the body worked,
were the forerunners of the scientific method.
were useful because they could be tested experimentally.
challenged the usefulness of philosophical speculation.
negated the distinction between function and purpose.
The work of Müller and many physiologists who followed him is characterized by
experimentation and logical deduction.
observation and classification.
self-report and introspective evidence.
philosophical speculation.
Darwin's theory of evolution suggests that all of an organism's characteristics
are given to it by its creator.
confer a selective advantage on the species.
have been naturally selected by its ancestors.
have functional significance.
Which is the only true statement about animal research?
Behavior cannot be studied using tissue cultures or computers.
The characteristics of tissue cultures are similar enough to living organisms to replace them in research..
Computer research can replace animal research if the results are interpreted cautiously.
The results of research using tissue cultures can be more reliably replicated that the results of research using animals.
Most professional physiological psychologists work in
industry.
hospitals.
colleges and universities.
government.
Chapter 2
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What is the correct sequence of structures encountered by neural information as it travels along a neuron?
dendrites to soma to axon to terminal buttons
dendrites to soma to terminal buttons to axon
soma to axon to dendrites to terminal buttons
terminal buttons to axon to soma to dendrites
Microtubules are slender tubes that
carry information from the cell body to the terminal button.
transport substances within the cell.
resemble tree branches and receive incoming messages.
wrap around portions of the axon.
Which of the following are the least similar in their functions?
lysosomes and mitochondria
axons and dendrites
chromosomes and genes
nucleolus and ribosomes
Which of these alternatives does not provide support to neurons?
oligodendrocyte
astrocyte
node of Ranvier
glia
When nerves in the PNS are damaged, Schwann cells
produce scar tissue.
secrete enzymes that stimulate neurons to divide.
form cylinders to guide the new axon sprouts.
manufacture extra myelin.
Fewer substances enter or leave the brain across the blood-brain barrier in the _____ because the walls of the capillaries _____.
PNS; have gaps
PNS; do not have gaps
CNS; have gaps
CNS; do not have gaps
When the transmitter substance is released at a particular synapse, two possible effects occur:
sympathetic or parasympathetic.
electrical or chemical.
positive or negative.
excitatory or inhibitory.
If the membrane of an axon receives a sufficiently large depolarization, the resulting rapid reversal of charge is called a(n)
threshold of excitation.
membrane potential.
action potential.
resting potential shift.
The membrane potential is the result of two forces:
diffusion and electrostatic pressure.
hyperpolarization and depolarization.
equilibrium and inertia.
the resting potential and the threshold of excitation.
Sodium-potassium transporters keep the intracellular concentration of
Na+ low.
K+ low.
Na+ high.
Cl- high.
All of the following are true about conduction of an action potential in a myelinated axon except:
The transmission follows the all-or-none law.
Conduction of the message under the myelin segment is via passive cable properties.
Saltatory transmission is more energy efficient but slower than transmission in unmyelinated axons.
Action potentials occur only at the nodes of Ranvier.
Saltatory conduction is advantageous because
it is unaffected by diseases that damage myelin.
it permits myelinated axons to transmit action potentials almost as fast as unmyelinated axons.
nodes of Ranvier are bypassed.
less energy is required to operate the sodium-potassium transporters.
Which of the following statements is not true of chemical involved in communication?
Most neuromodulators are composed of peptides.
Hormones travel in the bloodstream and affect distant receptors.
Pheromones are chemical that are released by endocrine glands.
Ligands that activate receptors can be found in the body, in nature, and in the laboratory.
Select the correct statement about the synapse.
Cisternae are involved in production of large synaptic vesicles.
Small vesicles typically contain neuropeptides.
Mitochondria play a role in the repackaging of transmitters into vesicles.
Most vesicles congregate near the part of the presynaptic membrane called the release zone.
Synaptic vesicles are produced in the __________ and are transported to the __________.
cytoplasm; dendrites
soma; terminal buttons
dendrites; release zone
synapse; extracellular fluid
What ion plays a crucial role in propelling synaptic vesicles toward the presynaptic membrane? 
Na+
Cl-
Ca2+
K-
The membrane of synaptic vesicles is recycled by
being incorporated into the membrane of the terminal button, after which small buds pinch off into the cytoplasm.
being incorporated into the membrane of the terminal button, after which it subdivides into replicas of itself.
resealing their membranes and spontaneously reproducing transmitter substance.
fusing with mitochondria, which provide energy to regenerate.
Postsynaptic receptors bind with molecules of transmitter substance and 
transport them to synaptic vesicles.
open neurotransmitter-dependent ion channels.
release them during an EPSP or IPSP.
deactivate them through reuptake.
The acetylcholine receptor studied in the electric ray
is a metabotropic receptor.
opens potassium channels when stimulated.
is linked to a G protein that activates an enzyme in the membrane.
opens ion channels directly when stimulated.
All of the following are true about metabotropic receptors except:
When stimulated, they require the cell to expend energy.
They are found on the postsynaptic membrane but not the presynaptic membrane.
They open ion channels indirectly via activation of second messengers.
They are located in close proximity to G proteins.
During an EPSP
Na+ enters the cell. 
K+ enters the cell. 
Na+ leaves the cell. 
Cl- leaves the cell. 
At most synapses, postsynaptic potentials are terminated by
reuptake.
enzymatic deactivation.
ionic flow.
phagocytosis.
A neuron's own transmitter substance, detected by its autoreceptors,
initiates changes in the local membrane potential. 
opens the gates of neurotransmitter- dependent ion channels.
facilitates the synthesis of other transmitter substances.
regulates internal processes.
Peptides
stimulate metabotropic receptors that alter the activity of the cell's nucleus.
are small fat-soluble molecules.
include hormones secreted by the sex glands and the adrenals.
are synthesized from cholesterol.
Chapter 3
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As you look down on the snake, you see its _____ surface, but it slithers along the ground on its _____surface.
lateral; ventral
ventral; medial
dorsal; ventral
dorsal; lateral
Which of the following would not be visible in a midsagittal view of the brain?
the lateral fissure
the limbic cortex
the corpus callosum
the cingulate gyrus
The meninges and subarachnoid space surround the brain in the following order, beginning with the outer layer:
dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid membrane, subarachnoid space
dura mater, arachnoid membrane, subarachnoid space, pia mater
pia mater, dura mater, subarachnoid space, arachnoid membrane
pia mater, arachnoid membrane, subarachnoid space, dura mater
Cerebrospinal fluid is produced by the
meninges.
subarachnoid space.
choroid plexus.
ventricles.
After cerebrospinal fluid has circulated through the brain and subarachnoid space it is
excreted by the kidneys.
recirculated for the next three hours.
reabsorbed into the blood supply.
transported through the central canal to the abdomen.
In the central nervous system neurons develop
on the inner surface of the embryonic hollow tube.
in radially oriented glial cells.
in the chambers which become the ventricles of the brain.
in cortex of the brain.
The three major parts of the brain are the
telencephalon, the diencephalon, and the metencephalon.
cerebral cortex, the association cortex, and the brain stem.
frontal lobe, the parietal lobe, and the temporal lobe.
forebrain, the midbrain, and the hindbrain.
Neurons that do not establish synaptic connections with a postsynaptic cell
migrate to the bone marrow.
may have an insufficient number of growth cones.
may later become malignant.
eventually die.
The lateral fissure separates the _____lobe from the _____ lobe.
frontal; parietal
frontal; temporal
temporal occipital
parietal; occipital
The corpus callosum connects the
two hemispheres of the brain.
structures of the limbic system.
pituitary gland and the hypothalamus.
thalamus and the hypothalamus.
The most important structures of the limbic system are the limbic cortex, the
hippocampus, and the amygdala.
basal ganglia, and the thalamus.
primary motor cortex, and the primary association cortex.
hypothalamus, and the pituitary gland.
The limbic system plays a role in
planning and execution of movement.
visual and auditory functions.
control of the endocrine system.
emotional behavior, learning, and memory.
The _____ surrounds the third ventricle and its two most important structures are the _____.
forebrain; the telencephalon and the diencephalon
diencephalon; thalamus and the hypothalamus
limbic system; basal ganglia and the amygdala
diencephalon; fornix and the massa intermedia
The thalamus is responsible for
most of the neural input received by the cerebral cortex.
emotional behavior.
movement of a particular part of the body.
behaviors related to survival of the species.
Neurons in the hypothalamus
control the peripheral nervous system.
send projection fibers through the optic chiasm.
are controlled by hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary gland.
are involved behaviors such as fighting and fleeing.
The anterior pituitary gland produces
vasopressin.
oxytocin.
gonadotropic hormones.
estrogen.
The principal structures of the tectum are the
superior and inferior colliculi.
hippocampus and amygdala.
thalamus and hypothalamus.
lateral and medial geniculate nuclei.
The reticular formation
relays visual information from the retina to the rest of the brain.
appears as four bumps on the brain stem.
is one of two major fiber systems within the brain.
plays a role in sleep and arousal.
The periaqueductal gray matter is so called because of an abundance of
fibers.
cell bodies.
synapses.
axons.
The spinal cord is _______________ the vertebral column.
fused to
longer than
outside
shorter than
Dorsal roots contain _____ axons and ventral roots contain _____ axons.
unipolar; bipolar
myelinated; unmyelinated
afferent; efferent
motor; sensory
The cranial nerve that regulates the function of organs in the thoracic and abdominal cavities is the
preganglionic nerve.
hypoglossal nerve.
vagus nerve.
trigeminal nerve.
The two divisions of the autonomic nervous system are the
brain and the spinal cord.
somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system.
sympathetic division and the parasympathetic division.
spinal nerves and the cranial nerves.
__________ __________ leave the spinal cord through the ventral root.
Preganglionic axons
Postganglionic axons
Sympathetic ganglia
Cranial nerves
Chapter 4
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Which of the following routes of drug administration is not used for laboratory animals?
intravenous injection
subcutaneous injection
sublingual administration
intracerebroventricular administration
Which of the following is not true of depot binding?
It can delay the effects of a drug.
It can prolong the effects of a drug.
Albumin is a source of depot binding.
Kidneys are a source of depot binding.
The therapeutic index of a drug is
a measure of a drug's margin of safety.
the dose of a drug that produces toxic effects in 50 percent of animals.
very low for drugs such as Valium.
very high for barbiturates.
Which of the following is not true about repeated administration of a drug?
It can inhibit tolerance.
It can produce sensitization.
Withdrawal symptoms can appear after a person stops taking the drug.
Compensatory mechanisms may be engaged.
The placebo effect
shows that the mind can affect behavior without involving the brain.
is especially important in animal research.
has been analyzed through the use of drugs.
only occurs in people who can be hypnotized.
Select the incorrect statement.
When a drug acts as a precursor, it increases the production of a neurotransmitter, serving as an agonist.
If a drug inactivates enzymes responsible for the production of a neurotransmitter, it acts as an agonist.
Transporter molecules that fill synaptic vesicles may be blocked by a drug, which then serves as an antagonist.
Some antagonist drugs prevent the release of transmitter substance from terminal buttons.
A drug that mimics the effects of a transmitter substance acts as a
receptor blocker.
direct antagonist.
direct agonist.
indirect ligand.
Drugs that bind with postsynaptic receptors can serve as antagonists when they
cause ion channels to open.
depolarize cations.
prevent the synaptic vesicles from releasing transmitter substance.
bind with the receptors but do not open the ion channels.
Select the incorrect statement
Receptor blockers or direct antagonists refer to the same process.
Noncompetitive binding means that a molecule does not compete with molecules of the transmitter substance for the same binding site.
A drug that binds noncompetitively can act as an inverse antagonist.
Drugs that block presynaptic autoreceptors increase the release of the transmitter substance.
Which of the following is not true of presynaptic heteroreceptors?
They are contained in the first (presynaptic) terminal button of axoaxonic synapses.
Drugs can make them insensitive to the transmitter substance.
They can inhibit the opening of voltage-dependent calcium channels.
They can facilitate the opening of voltage-dependent calcium channels.
Drugs that bind with and block dendritic autoreceptors
produce an inhibitory hyperpolarization.
inhibit production of the transmitter substance.
disrupt the regulatory mechanism that controls the production of transmitter substance.
act as agonists.
Termination of the postsynaptic potential
can occur when molecules of the transmitter substance are taken back into the dendrite through reuptake.
can occur when molecules of the transmitter substance are destroyed by an enzyme.
may involve the enzyme choline acetyltransferase.
may be inhibited by drugs that act as antagonists.
Acetylcholine
has an excitatory effect on cardiac muscle fibers.
is found in the autonomic nervous system.
is deactivated by reuptake.
produces hyperpolarization in skeletal muscle fibers.
Select the incorrect statement.
Acetylcholine plays a role in attention and reinforcement.
Acetylcholine is made of acetate and choline.
Acetylcholine acts on both nicotinic and muscarinic receptors.
Acetylcholine has both inhibitory and excitatory effects on cells.
_____ blocks muscarinic receptors and _____ blocks nicotinic receptors.
Curare; atropine
Apomorphine; physostigmine
Atropine; curare
Tyrosine; atropine
Which of the following is not a monoamine neurotransmitter?
tyrosine
serotonin
norepinephrine
dopamine
Which of the following statements is true?
Dopamine is synthesized from the amino acid tryptophan.
Dopamine is involved in arousal and sleep.
Dopamine stimulates at least five different kinds of ionotropic receptors.
Dopaminergic synapses are lacking in Parkinson's disease and overactive in schizophrenia.
The function of monoamine oxidase (MAO) is to
facilitate synthesis of the monoamines.
destroy excess amounts of the monoamines.
block the reuptake of the monoamines.
transport the monoamines down the axon to the terminal buttons.
Which drug was the first to receive widespread use as an effective treatment for the symptoms of schizophrenia?
Valium
chlorpromazine
atropine
lithium carbonate
Serotonergic neurons
are involved in the symptoms of schizophrenia.
help regulate blood pressure.
are involved in the control of dreaming.
are involved with balance and walking.
Glutamic acid, GABA, and glycine
may be the three most common transmitter substances in the CNS.
appeared late in the evolutionary process.
circulate through the brain in the cerebrospinal fluid.
are the principal excitatory transmitter substances of the brain.
All of the following act on the GABA receptor complex except
NMDA.
benzodiazepines.
barbiturates.
alcohol.
Many peptides that are released at the same time as a transmitter substance may serve to regulate the
sensitivity of postsynaptic receptors to the transmitter substance.
reuptake of the transmitter substance.
axoplasmic flow to the terminal buttons.
metabolism of the brain.
Endogenous opioids are
by-products of the synthesis of transmitter substances.
steroids synthesized from cholesterol.
neuromodulators produced in the brain.
hormones secreted by many tissues of the body.
Chapter 5
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The results of lesion studies are often difficult to interpret because
a particular neural circuit can perform only one behavior.
directly or indirectly, all regions of the brain are interconnected.
sometimes there is no clear difference between behavior and function.
the effects of surgical anesthesia cannot be determined.
Which of these methods produces the most selective brain lesions?
suction
microdialysis
excitatory amino acids
radio frequency current
To account for incidental brain damage when lesions are produced, researchers
increase the number of animals in the study.
use equal numbers of male and female animals.
produce sham lesions.
repeat the study.
A temporary or "reversible" brain lesion can be produced using
very low doses of an excitatory amino acid.
a local anesthetic.
electrical current on only one side of the brain.
a very brief interruption in the blood supply.
Using a stereotaxic apparatus, researchers can
assess loss of function resulting from brain lesions.
slice brains for histological examination.
make subcortical lesions in the brain.
confirm the location of brain lesions.
Using a stereotaxic atlas, researchers can
locate bregma.
determine the approximate location of structures deep within the brain.
calculate the correct amount of anesthesia required.
determine which method of making brain lesions to use.
A fixative performs all these functions except
attaching tissue to a microscope slide.
halting autolysis.
hardening tissue.
killing destructive microorganisms.
Using a microtome, researchers can
apply a mounting medium.
dry and heat tissue.
examine and photograph stained and mounted brain sections.
slice tissue into thin sections.
Scanning electron microscopes produce
moving images that can be preserved on video cassettes.
images cast on glass slides that can also be examined with a light microscope.
images of three dimensional structures.
images of tissue that cannot be exposed to light.
_____ labeling methods are used to trace _____ axons which carry information _____ a brain structure.
Retrograde; afferent; toward
Anterograde; afferent; away from
Retrograde; efferent; away from
Anterograde; afferent; toward
Immunocytochemical methods are used to
locate peptides and proteins.
provide a two-dimensional view of the human brain.
selectively destroy axons.
inhibit fast axoplasmic transport.
Researchers using CT or MRI
do not have to obtain permission from either the patient or the family.
can study the living brain without operating on the patient.
anesthetize the patient before beginning.
must first shave the patient's head.
Microelectrodes are used to record the electrical activity of
individual neurons in the brain.
entire regions deep within the brain.
the fluid that fills the ventricles.
the synaptic cleft.
2-deoxyglucose is
found in the membrane of cells.
a nuclear protein.
the preferred fuel of the brain.
not metabolized by cells.
An electroencephalogram is a
a microscope slide of radioactivity in the brain.
paper record of electrical activity in the brain.
x-ray record of normal or abnormal brain tissue.
treated photographic film showing receptor location.
The metabolic activity in the brain of a laboratory animal can be measured by giving an injection of _____ and analyzing the results using _____.
Fos; PET scanner
2-DG; autoradiography
fluorogold; high-performance liquid chromatography
saline; electroencephalography
Functional MRI (fMRI)
was the first imaging technique for studying the living brain.
images were never as detailed as those obtained using PET scanners.
permits the measuring of regional metabolism.
can be used to locate any radioactive substance.
Microdialysis is used to measure the
permeability of the cell membrane.
intracranial pressure.
secretions of the brain.
electrical activity of the brain.
An advantage of chemical stimulation over electrical stimulation of the brain is that
it requires less equipment.
stereotaxic surgery is not necessary.
the effects are more localized.
no tissue is destroyed.
To study the effect of chemicals on the activity of a single cell researchers use
microiontophoresis.
in situ hybridization.
single-unit recording.
autoradiography.
One of the difficulties in using electrical brain stimulation as a research tool is stimulation
sometimes triggers a seizure.
is difficult to localize.
must always be administered during open head procedures.
can never duplicate natural neural processes.
To identify neurons producing a particular peptide, researchers use _____ methods.
immunocytochemical
anterograde tracing
autoradiographic
retrograde tracing
To search for a particular messenger RNA, researchers use
the Fos protein.
autoradiography.
in situ hybridization.
2-DG.
Double labeling techniques permit researchers to determine what chemicals a neuron contains and
their connections with other neurons.
the enzymes that produce them.
the messenger RNA involved in their synthesis.
nearby agonists or antagonists.
Chapter 6
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If a color is fully saturated, the radiation contains
all wavelengths.
one wavelength.
wavelengths beyond the visible spectrum.
a mixture of wavelengths from a specific band of the spectrum.
Optic nerves join together at the __________, where half of the axons cross to the opposite side of the brain.
calcarine fissure
optic chiasm
optic disk
striate cortex
The first step in visual perception occurs when light
causes a photopigment to split into its two constituents.
enters the sclera.
reaches the brain through the optic chiasm.
causes a change in the receptor potential of the photoreceptor.
Foveal vision is more acute than peripheral vision because
the receptor-to-axon relationships are approximately equal in the fovea.
its photoreceptors respond more quickly to changes in illumination.
its receptive field is near the fixation point.
its ganglion cells fire continuously.
Kuffler found that the receptive field of cat ganglion cells resembles
a mosaic.
a circle surrounded by a ring.
staggered columns.
blobs.
Retinal ganglion cells use a(n) __________ coding system.
trichromatic
relative brightness
opponent-process
black and white
Hubel and Wiesel first suggested that orientation-sensitive neurons in the visual cortex responds best to _______________, but other research indicates the best stimulus is _______________.
lines and edges; spots
low spatial frequencies; high spatial frequencies.
lines and edges; sine-wave gratings
sine-wave gratings; spots
When low frequency information is removed from an image of an object, it becomes
easier to identify.
more difficult to identify.
easier to identify if it is moved closer.
more difficult to identify if it is moved closer.
Neurons that respond to "periodic patterns" are probably used to perceive
surface texture.
depth.
color.
high contrast images.
CO blobs
were discovered in the modules of prestriate cortex.
are organized in ovals within a module.
contain color sensitive neurons.
analyze information from the entire visual scene.
Retinal disparity helps us to recognize
shapes and patterns.
depth.
density.
right and left.
The phenomenon of blindsight includes all of the following except:
the ability to accurately reach for an object held in one's blind field.
visual information that controls behavior without producing a conscious sensation.
connections that the visual association cortex receives from the superior colliculus and dorsal lateral geniculate nucleus.
an early evolutionary development.
The ventral stream of visual association cortex recognizes
the distance of an object from the viewer.
where an object is located.
the identity of an object.
the movement of an object.
Extrastriate cortex
consists of several regions that respond to a particular kind of visual information.
receives information directly from the retina.
performs the initial analysis of visual information.
responds best to familiar stimuli.
Neurons in subarea V4 of extrastriate cortex
have two receptive fields and respond to both.
respond to a variety of wavelengths of light.
are especially sensitive to changes in illumination.
do not respond to orientation.
People with achromatopsia have
difficulty tracking a moving object.
lost some or all of their color vision.
no peripheral vision.
diminished visual acuity.
Inferior temporal cortex
receives information from the magnocellular system.
is found only in primates.
c. performs the analysis of location and movement.
performs the analysis of form and color.
All of the following are true of the TE area except:
It is one of the two major regions of the inferior temporal cortex.
Neurons of the TE have a large receptive field.
Neurons in the TE respond well to simple stimuli such as spots, lines, or sine-wave gratings.
Neurons in the TE appear to participate in the recognition of objects.
Associative visual agnosias are
disconnections between visual perceptions and verbal systems.
failures in high-level perceptions.
genetic abnormalities involving the cones.
inabilities to integrate tactile and visual information.
People with prosopagnosia
have difficulty with visual accommodation.
do not have binocular vision.
do not recognize faces.
are color blind.
Which of the following is not true of the V5 area?
It is part of the extrastriate cortex, also known as MT.
Neurons on the V5 respond to movement.
The V5 is divided into rectangular modules.
Most neurons of the V5 do not show directional sensitivity.
The pulvinar appears
to monitor the position of the body in relation to the setting.
to compensate for the effects of our own movements on movements of images on the retina.
to coordinate eye and hand movements.
to control eye fixation.
Simultanagnosia, one of the symptoms of Balint's syndrome, is the inability to
reach for an object successfully.
scan the contents of a room and perceive object locations.
perceive more than one object in a group.
identify objects by sight alone.
The dorsal stream may be primarily occupied with
guiding actions.
perceiving colors.
identifying objects.
controlling speech.
Chapter 7
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The frequency of a vibration determines its
pitch.
loudness.
timbre.
complexity.
Because the cochlea is filled with fluid,
its shape remains constant because liquids cannot be compressed.
the ability to hear high frequencies diminishes with age as this liquid is absorbed by the body.
sounds transmitted through air must be transferred to a liquid medium.
it is most sensitive to rolling movements; thus we can experience seasickness.
Which of the following is not true about auditory hair cells?
The inner hair cells are more numerous than the outer hair cells.
They contain cilia.
They produce depolarizations when bent in one direction and hyperpolarizations when bent in the opposite direction.
They contain actin filaments which make them stiff and rigid.
The round window moves in and out in opposition to movements of the
Eustachian tube.
basilar membrane.
tectorial membrane.
oval window.
Most of the neurons in the cochlear nuclei send axons directly to the
auditory cortex.
superior olivary complex.
thalamus
medial geniculate nucleus.
Progressive hair cell damage from the use of certain antibiotics causes a parallel progressive hearing loss, which suggests that some sounds are detected through
place coding.
rate coding.
synthetic coding.
analytic coding.
Musical overtones are
a series of complex waveforms.
repetitions of the fundamental frequency at a constant intensity.
multiples of the fundamental frequency.
repetitions of the fundamental frequency at varying intensities.
The source of continuous low-pitched sounds is detected through phase differences, which is
the time interval between the arrival at each ear of different portions of the oscillating sound wave.
the time interval between the arrival at each ear of the same portion of the oscillating sound wave.
the simultaneous arrival at each ear of the same portion of an oscillating sound wave.
a or c, depending on the frequency of the stimulus.
Bilateral lesions of the auditory cortex of monkeys results in
impaired ability to detect high frequency sounds.
inability to detect intermittent, but not continuous sounds.
gradual deafness.
impaired ability to determine the source of a sound.
The semicircular canals
respond to gravity.
are part of the system of ossicles.
are located in the sagittal, transverse, and horizontal planes in the head.
respond to steady rotation of the head.
The vestibulo-ocular reflex depends upon vestibular connection to the
third, fourth, and sixth cranial nerve nuclei.
cerebellum.
cortex.
lower brain stem.
The gelatinous mass within the vestibular sacs shifts in response to movement of the
cilia.
otoconia.
fluid in the cupula.
fluid in the semicircular canal.
We experience feelings of pressure through
the cutaneous senses.
kinesthesia.
the organic senses.
the vestibular senses.
The _______________, which are found in __________ skin, are the largest sensory end organs in the body.
Pacinian corpuscles; hairy
Ruffini corpuscles; hairy
Pacinian corpuscles; glabrous
Ruffini corpuscles; glabrous
The reason why people ignore the pressure from a ring or a belt that they wear daily is that receptor cells
become fatigued from constant information.
adapt to constant stimulation.
degenerate from constant pressure and are not replaced.
are constricted by the constant pressure.
Somatosensory cortex
is divided into maps that allocate the most tissue to the regions with the greatest surface area such as the skin of the back.
is represented by five horizontal layers.
is arranged in columns that respond to a particular type of stimulus.
has yet to be represented on functional maps.
The most effective locations for producing analgesia using electrical brain stimulation are the
nucleus of the solitary tract and the nucleus raphe magnus.
trigeminal nerve and the rostroventral medulla.
periaqueductal gray matter and the rostroventral medulla.
nucleus raphe magnus and the posterior nuclei of the thalamus.
Electrical brain stimulation apparently produces analgesia by stimulating the release of
prostaglandins.
morphine.
histamines.
endogenous opiates.
Substances that taste sweet are first tasted _______________ of the tongue.
on the tip
in the middle
at the back
along the sides
Gustatory information from the cranial nerves is sent directly to the
parabrachial nucleus of the pons.
thalamic taste area.
hypothalamus.
nucleus of the solitary tract.
Studies have confirmed that ________ and _______ substances activate a G-protein and second messenger.
sweet, bitter
sweet, umami
sour, salty
bitter, salty.
Olfactory receptors are located in the
olfactory bulbs.
cribriform plate.
olfactory epithelium.
olfactory tracts.
Electrical recordings of neural responses to olfactory stimuli indicate that
response patterns to odors remain constant.
half the sampled neurons in one region responded to only one particular odor.
olfactory receptors exist for every detectable odor.
the metabolic rate of olfactory receptors is not affected by odor
All of the above occur during transduction of olfactory information except:
A special G protein is activated in the olfactory cilia.
The membrane of the cell depolarizes.
Cyclic AMP opens potassium channels.
Sodium channels open.
Chapter 8
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The number of muscle fibers that serve a single axon depends on
the size of the body part that must be moved.
the precision with which a muscle can be controlled.
whether its controls flexion or extension.
its sensitivity to stretch.
The three components of a motor unit are
an alpha motor neuron; its axon; and associated extrafusal muscle fibers.
a gamma motor neuron; its axon; and associated intrafusal muscle fibers.
an alpha motor neuron; its terminal buttons; and associated neurotransmitter.
muscles; tendons; and associated stretch receptors.
During a depolarization of the muscle fiber, which event does not occur?
Calcium enters the cytoplasm.
The movement of actin causes muscle fiber to shorten.
The myosin crossbridges move, shortening the muscle fiber.
Myofibrils extract energy provided by the mitochondria.
The Golgi tendon organ detects
muscle length.
strength of muscular contraction.
the total amount of stretch.
rate of muscular contraction.
The monosynaptic stretch reflex
initiates limb withdrawal in response to pain.
helps compensate for changes in weight that cause limb movement.
maintains muscles in a constant state of contraction.
is the simplest neural pathway and has little utility.
A polysynaptic reflex
can be demonstrated by tapping the patellar tendon.
contain no interneurons between the sensory neurons and the motor neuron.
simplifies the role of the brain in controlling movement.
limits the amount of muscular contraction to prevent injury.
Muscle spindles are sensitive to changes in
blood levels of calcium.
tendon stretch.
muscle tension.
muscle length.
When a stretch reflex is elicited in the agonist muscle it _____quickly causing the antagonist to _____.
contracts; lengthen
lengthen; contract
releases; release at the same rate
releases; pull back
Stimulation studies of primary motor cortex indicate that the largest amount of cortical area is devoted to movements of
arms and legs.
head and neck.
fingers and speech muscles.
trunk and genitalia.
The principal cortical input to the primary motor cortex is
temporal cortex.
prefrontal cortex.
frontal association cortex.
posterior association cortex.
The fact that monkeys with bilateral pyramidal tract lesions had no trouble opening their hands when climbing but had difficulty opening their hands when eating indicates that
these monkeys can still successfully forage for food.
damaged neural pathways that mediate large movements can regenerate, but neural pathways that mediate precise movements cannot.
the ability to use the hands to flee (climb) conveys a greater selective advantage to the species than feeding.
the same behavior can be controlled by different brain mechanisms in different contexts.
The reticulospinal tracts controls
movements of the fingers and hands.
several autonomic functions such as respiration.
movements of forelimb and hindlimb muscles.
posture and righting reflexes.
Apraxia is the inability to
properly execute a learned skilled movement.
benefit from practicing a skilled movement.
perceive sequences of skilled movements.
resume performing a skilled movement that has been interrupted.
Limb apraxia is assessed by asking a patient to
perform a movement.
describe how he or she would move in a particular situation.
teach someone else a movement.
list components of a motion in sequential order.
Patients with callosal apraxia are able to perform a requested movement with their right arm, but not their left because
the lesion has paralyzed the left arm.
most people are right handed and the lesion does not affect "handedness."
the anterior corpus callosum has been damaged and the right and left premotor areas can no longer communicate.
Wernicke's area has been damaged and requests to perform a movement are only partially understood.
Patients with constructional apraxia have difficulty
pantomiming particular actions.
"constructing" the proper sequence of action when shown a series of pictures, in random order, of the components of a motion.
controlling the movements of their hands and arms.
building shapes using toy building blocks.
The primary deficit in constructional apraxia appears to involve
motor impairment of the hands and arms.
the ability to perceive and imagine geometric shapes.
difficulty in sequencing of actions.
the inability to follow instructions.
The components of the basal ganglia are the
ventrolateral nucleus; the ventral anterior nucleus; and the pontine nucleus.
premotor cortex; the primary motor cortex; and the supplementary motor area.
the globus pallidus; the substantia nigra; and the subthalamic nuclei.
caudate nucleus; the putamen; and the globus pallidus.
Parkinson's disease is characterized by ______________ movements and Huntington's chorea is characterized by _______________ movements.
slow; uncontrollable
smooth; slow
rigid; smooth
slow; smooth
A pallidotomy destroys the
substantia nigra.
internal division of the globus pallidus.
external division of the globus pallidus.
putamen.
Huntington's chorea is caused by a defective gene that
causes the faulty conversion of MPTP into toxic MPP.
results in abnormally high levels of GADPH.
halts nitric oxide synthesis.
produces a protein with an elongated stretch of glutamine.
The cerebellum consists of two _____ with the _____ located on the midline.
lobes; intermediate zone
zones; corpus callosum
sets of nuclei; interposed nuclei
hemispheres; vermis
If a patient complains to a physician that he or she has recently been having difficulty maintaining balance, the physician may suspect a lesion in the
basal ganglia.
lateral zone of the cerebellum.
red nucleus.
flocculonodular lobe of the cerebellum.
Stimulation of the mesencephalic locomotor region of the reticular formation causes cats to
sit down.
tremble.
pace.
stare.
Chapter 9
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The waking EEG is characterized by
occasional delta activity.
periods of alpha and beta activity.
regular changes in heart rate, blood pressure and respiration.
bursts of K complexes.
Sleeping subjects who are awakened during REM sleep almost always
report narrative dreams.
insist they were still awake.
report frightening situations.
report they were not dreaming.
REM sleep
almost always follows a period of slow-wave sleep.
occurs four or five times during an 8-hour sleep and lasts approximately 90 minutes.
contains more than 50 percent delta activity.
is the deepest stage of sleep.
All of the following lend support to the notion that sleep is an adaptive response except:
Large predators like lions can sleep whenever and wherever they want.
Cows sleep very little because they need to remain awake to guard against predators.
The Indus dolphin sleeps while it swims, a total of seven hours per day.
Shrews that need to eat a lot sleep very little.
When sleep-deprived subjects are permitted to sleep normally, they
regain most of the stage 1 sleep they lost.
do not regain all the sleep they lost.
experience a nearly equal percentage of recovery for all stages of sleep.
go directly into REM sleep from waking.
The effects of forced exercise using the yoked-control technique
increased subjects' needs for REM sleep on recovery nights following the experiment.
reduced the total sleep time of experimental and control subjects by the same amount.
include an increase in body temperature.
are exaggerated when subjects are fed an enriched diet.
Exercise increases the amount of slow-wave sleep only if
body temperature rises.
brain temperature rises.
body temperature decreases.
brain temperature decreases.
Subjects were treated to an interesting outing before spending the night in a sleep laboratory in order to
increase mental activity without affecting physical activity.
eliminate affects of external stress.
reduce fluctuations in metabolic rate.
maintain a constant level of alertness.
Which of the following statements about thermoregulation and sleep is not true?
Warm baths increase the amount of slow-wave sleep.
People's alertness during the day is related to their body temperature.
The anterior hypothalamus and adjacent preoptic area contain neural circuits involved in thermoregulation.
Humans can save a considerable amount of energy by lowering body temperature during sleep.
The rebound phenomenon
indicates that REM sleep has the same function as slow-wave sleep.
occurs when REM sleep-deprived subjects are permitted to sleep normally.
results when aspects of REM sleep intrude into wakefulness.
suggests that REM sleep deprivation causes physiological harm.
The REM sleep of rats who were trained to run a complex maze
increased until the maze was mastered and then returned to baseline levels.
decreased until the maze was mastered and then returned to baseline levels.
increased each day during training.
decreased each day during training.
All of the following suggest that restoration and repair take place during slow-wave sleep except:
Slow-wave sleep increases following periods of emotional stress.
Growth hormone is secreted during slow-wave sleep.
Protein synthesis is increased during sleep, especially in animals like rats.
Cerebral blood flow is decreased during slow-wave sleep.
Which neurotransmitter does not play an excitatory role in arousal or wakefulness?
acetylcholine
norepinephrine
neuropeptide Y
serotonin
The firing rate of noradrenergic neurons in the locus coeruleus correlates best with
the activity of neurons in the SCN.
vigilance.
the activity of ACh neurons.
the basic rest activity cycle.
Which statement is not true of the POAH?
This part of the brain is involved in thermoregulation.
The POAH is part of the basal forebrain; the preoptic area and the adjacent anterior hypothalamus.
Warming the POAH can induce slow-wave sleep.
Neurons in the POAH are directly sensitive to changes in brain temperature, however they are not sensitive to thermosensors in the skin.
PGO waves
are brief bursts of electrical activity that originate in the basal forebrain.
are the first sign of a bout of REM sleep in animals.
control muscular paralysis.
are detected by an enzyme stain.
All of the following are involved in the neural circuitry of REM sleep except:
raphe nuclei
peribrachial area
acetylcholinergic neurons
medial pontine reticular formation
The right amount of sleep is
only obtained by infants.
whatever seems to be enough.
assured with sleeping medication.
infrequently obtained by insomniacs.
Sleep apnea is
a form of pseudoinsomnia.
a side affect of sleeping medications.
a period of sleep without dreams.
the inability to sleep and breathe at the same time.
During a cataplectic attack, the individual
awakens gasping for breath.
tries to act out dreams.
is unconscious.
is overcome by muscular paralysis.
Which of the following is not true about biological clocks?
They control circadian and seasonal rhythms.
They include structures such as the SCN and pineal gland.
They are often synchronized by zeitgebers.
They are found only in mammals.
How did the daily behavior of a rat change with constant dim illumination?
Periods of activity increased and periods of sleep decreased.
Food consumption increased with activity levels.
The biological clock ran slower; activity began about one hour later each day.
Body temperature increased slightly with constant light.
The primary biological clock of the rat is located in the
suprachiasmatic nucleus.
reticular formation.
locus coeruleus.
pons.
All of the following are true about the "ticking" of the biological clock, except:
"Ticking" is intrinsic to individual neurons.
Infusion of the drug TTX abolishes both circadian rhythms and "ticking".
activity cycles of neurons in the SCN are synchronized.
The per and tim genes appear to control intracellular ticking.
Chapter 10
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Which example illustrates the activational effects of sex hormones?
development of ovaries and uterus
production of sperm
differentiation of the primordial gonads
changes in brain development caused by androgens
The precursor of the _____ sex organs is the _____ system which develops _____.
female; Wolffian; without any hormonal stimuli
male; Wolffian; only if the testes secrete the appropriate hormones
male; Müllerian; without any hormonal stimuli
female; Müllerian; only if the ovaries secrete the appropriate hormones
Which event first marks the beginning of puberty?
release of gonadotropic hormones by anterior pituitary gland
secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormones by hypothalamus
appearance of secondary sex characteristics
production of estrogens by ovaries or androgens by testes
The LH surge causes
estrus.
the refractory period.
the release of milk.
ovulation.
During aromatization _____ is converted into _____.
prolactin; oxytocin
aromatase; testosterone
estrogen; estradiol
testosterone; estradiol
The sexual behavior of female rodents depends on the presence of _____.
testosterone
estrogen
prolactin and oxytocin
estradiol and progesterone
The acceleration of the onset of puberty in a female rodent caused by the odor of a male is known as the _______________ effect.
Whitten
Bruce
Vandenbergh
Lee-Boot
Removal of the __________ disrupts the Lee-Boot, Bruce, Vandenbergh, and Whitten effects.
pituitary gland
ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus
accessory olfactory bulb
adrenal glands
The frequency of intercourse throughout the menstrual cycle is at least moderately correlated with the woman's peak level of
testosterone.
progesterone.
estradiol.
oxytocin.
Castrated male cats remained potent longer if they
were introduced to a different female each time.
had previously engaged in high levels of sexual activity.
were housed with intact males.
did not have to compete with other males for the right to mate.
A large-scale study of male and female homosexuals found that
homosexuality results from unhappy parent-child relationships.
self-report was the best predictor of adult homosexuality.
only children were more likely to be homosexual than children with siblings.
homosexuality is often the result of poor interpersonal relationships with peers.
The biological basis of homosexuality may be differences in the
organizational affects of prenatal hormones.
activational affects of prenatal hormones.
degree of sexual dimorphism of the prenatal brain.
hormone levels of adult heterosexuals and homosexuals.
Human males with spinal cord damage
never again have an erection or experience an orgasm.
can only experience an orgasm through mechanical stimulation.
can experience "phantom erections" and orgasms.
experience a decline in the ability to have an erection and orgasm similar to the effects of castration.
The size of the sexually dimorphic nucleus of the __________ is __________.
medial amygdala; reduced in pups whose mother was prenatally sensitized
left temporal lobe; directly related to level of prenatal stress
preoptic area; controlled by the amount of androgens present during fetal development
ventral tegmental area; directly related to fertility
Injections of oxytocin into the brains of male rats
increase the likelihood of erection.
appear to affect sexual motivation.
decrease mounting behavior.
reduce the number of successful intromissions.
The brain region most critical for female sexual behavior is the __________ and the brain region most critical for maternal behavior is the __________.
ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus; ventral tegmental area
medial preoptic area; sexually dimorphic nucleus
ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus; medial preoptic area
sexually dimorphic nucleus; periaqueductal gray matter
The priming effect of estradiol is caused by
the LH surge.
an increase in progesterone receptors.
increased release of norepinephrine in the hypothalamus.
an increase in the firing rate of neurons in the periaqueductal gray matter.
Electrical stimulation of the periaqueductal gray matter facilitates
ovulation.
lordosis.
hormonal priming.
lactation.
Female rodents lick the anogenital region of their young. What is one of the results of this behavior?
assures identification of pups by scent
recycles water
reduces detection of pups' odor by intruders
regulates pups' metabolic rate
Virgin female rats can be made to care for infants if they are
caged with an experienced mother.
allowed to observe pups through a glass partition.
given injections of progesterone.
placed with young pups for several days.
Ultrasonic calls from a rodent pups signals that the pup is
cold.
hungry.
threatened by an intruder.
unable to move.
If ovariectomized virgin female rats are given a sequence of doses of estradiol and progesterone, they will
build brood nests.
begin to lactate.
fail to retrieve pups.
be sensitized to care for young more quickly.
Just before parturition the level of estradiol
rises; the level of progesterone begins to fall; and the level of prolactin rises.
and progesterone begin to fall and the level of prolactin rises.
falls, the level of progesterone rises, and the level of prolactin falls
rises, the level of prolactin falls, and then the level of progesterone rises.
When monogamous species of voles in which the male and female both care for the offspring are compared to promiscuous species that do not share parental responsibility
there are fewer connections between the MPA and the ventral tegmental area in monogamous males.
Fos production in the MPA of monogamous males is lower.
the sexual dimorphism of the MPA is less pronounced in the monogamous species.
the vasopressin levels in the MPA of monogamous males are lower.
Chapter 11
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If an animal learns how to avoid, escape from, or minimize an aversive stimulus, it has learned a(n)
conditioned emotional response.
coping response.
offensive emotional response.
defensive emotional response.
If the central nucleus of the amygdala is destroyed,
autonomic and behavioral components of conditioned emotional responses are disinhibited.
conditioned emotional responses to visual and olfactory, but not auditory, stimuli are disrupted.
positive and negative feelings associated with conditioned emotional responses are disrupted.
conditioned emotional responses cannot be learned.
An augmented startle response occurs through a connection between the central nucleus of the amygdala and the
ventral nucleus of the lateral lemniscus.
caudate nucleus.
nucleus reticularis pontis caudalis.
dorsolateral nucleus of the thalamus.
People who have suffered damage to the orbitofrontal cortex
suffer from compulsive behaviors.
do not exhibit normal timidity in strange situations.
respond appropriately to hypothetical social situations, but not when these situations apply to them.
show a tendency to express emotional feelings using gestures and facial expressions rather than verbally.
What may be the function of the orbitofrontal cortex?
to control voluntary activity
to organize hormonal responses to emotional stimuli
to make judgments and conclusions
to translate judgments into appropriate feelings and behaviors
Accurate identification of the facial expressions of Westerners by members of an isolated New Guinea tribe tends to confirm Darwin's hypothesis that emotional expressions
are innate, unlearned responses.
consists of four responses: fear, anger, sorrow, and surprise.
are immune to the effects of socialization.
are identical, whether posed or spontaneous.
The _____ hemisphere is involved in _____ emotions and the _____ hemisphere is involved in _____ emotions.
left; genuine; right; posed
right; negative; left; positive
left; fleeting; right; longer lasting
right; verbal expression of; left; nonverbal expression of
Following right hemisphere damage, patients
have difficulty determining the correct emotion conveyed in a situation.
can still imagine and describe mental images of emotions.
have difficulty expressing emotion with the face and voice.
can answer questions about emotional and nonemotional situations.
People with emotional facial paresis cannot _____ facial expressions of emotion.
imagine
mimic
spontaneously produce
distinguish between different
Research results using the chimerical faces technique suggest that the _____ half of the _____ is _____ expressive.
left; brain; more
left; face; less
right; brain; more
right; face; more
According to the James-Lange theory, emotional feelings
result from sensory feedback from the responses of emotion-producing situations.
are a direct response to emotion-producing situations.
are a product of both sensory feedback and acquired social behavior.
result in emotional behavior.
The results of research on patients with spinal cord injuries suggests that the intensity of their emotional states is related to the
frequency of social contact.
level of injury to the spinal cord.
length of time following injury
perception of self-worth.
Predatory attack
is usually accompanied by a strong display of rage.
and eating are organized by different neural mechanisms.
elicited by electrical stimulation appears aversive to laboratory animals.
on rats by laboratory cats is a spontaneous behavior.
If AP-7 is infused into the periaqueductal gray matter, the effects of medial hypothalamic stimulation are
increased.
blocked.
delayed.
inconsistent.
Increased activity of serotonergic synapses _____ aggression.
increases
inhibits
initiates
has no effect on
Monkeys in a free-ranging colony with the lowest levels of a metabolite of serotonin
showed increased risk-taking behavior.
had the longest survival rates.
usually became the dominant monkeys.
had the highest levels of social competency.
As adults, the male offspring of prenatally stressed females exhibited
less intermale aggression.
more intermale aggression.
less affect during predatory attack.
a marked aversion to all forms of aggressive behavior.
Females who were next to a male fetus in the uterus _____than females located between two females.
had significantly higher levels of testosterone in their blood
were less likely to display female sexual behavior.
were more likely to attack a male
exhibited less maternal behavior
Females of some primate species are more likely to engage in fights
during interruptions of menstruation caused by events such as pregnancy or low food supply.
just before and just after menstruation.
around the time of ovulation and just before menstruation.
following ovulation if pregnancy does not occur.
Immediately after giving birth, female mice
exhibit heightened irritability and aggressiveness.
are more hostile toward rival females than males.
will attack only males.
are docile for approximately 48 hours.
Infanticide by males is regulated by
pheromones.
proximity of rival males.
copulation.
blood levels of testosterone.
Studies of the effects of castration on human aggression
are the only way to determine the effects of androgens on aggression.
usually do not measure aggressive behavior directly.
do not need to include control groups.
usually do not correct for the effects of age at the time of castration on aggressive behavior.
Studies to correlate blood levels of testosterone and aggression
indicate that high levels of testosterone cause increased aggressive behavior.
are more reliable for male subjects than female subjects.
must take into account a person's environment in making conclusions.
cannot be undertaken because of ethical concerns.
Alcohol increases intermale aggression
among all male squirrel monkeys.
among dominant male squirrel monkeys but only during the mating season.
among subordinate male squirrel monkeys.
during retaliatory attack.
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Chapter 12
24
The role of the detector in a regulatory mechanism is to
monitor the value of the system variable.
recognize stimuli that might change the value of the system variable.
establish the value of the set point in response to environmental conditions.
restore the system variable to the set point.
An essential feature of all regulatory mechanisms is
a satiety mechanism.
negative feedback.
continuous feedback.
a neural control mechanism.
Satiety mechanisms
monitor system variables.
replenish depleted stores of food, fluid, or nutrients.
are a second correctional mechanism if detectors fail to work properly.
monitor the activity of correctional mechanisms.
Approximately two-thirds of the body's water is contained in the _____ fluid.
intracellular
extracellular
intravascular
interstitial
If the fluid inside a cell is isotonic to the interstitial fluid
their volumes are equal.
water will not tend to move in or out.
water will diffuse out of the cells through osmosis.
osmotic pressure may cause the membrane to rupture.
The _____ of the interstitial fluid must be closely regulated, but its _____ usually remains within normal limits.
production; excretion
excretion; volume
tonicity; volume
volume; tonicity
If we drink more water than we need, _____ secretion of _____ causes the kidneys to excrete more _____.
decreased; vasopressin; water
deceased; aldosterone; water
increased; vasopressin; sodium
increased; aldosterone; sodium
Osmometric thirst occurs when the
tonicity of the interstitial fluid increases.
volume of the intravascular fluid decreases.
blood flow to the kidneys decreases.
blood level of renin increases.
The stimulus for osmometric thirst is
renin secretion
a decrease in urine production.
hypovolemia.
cell dehydration.
The easiest way to produce volumetric thirst in an experimental animal is to give an injection of
a colloid.
a saline solution.
saralasin.
losartan.
A behavioral effect of angiotensin II is
aversion to a high protein diet.
production of a salt appetite.
near cessation of drinking.
an absence of food-related drinking.
The detectors for volumetric thirst are located in the
posterior pituitary gland and the hypothalamus.
kidneys and the bladder.
kidneys, heart, and large blood vessels.
stomach and large intestine.
.The region around the anteroventral third ventricle of the brain including the OVLT
monitors evaporation rate through skin temperature receptors.
contains osmoreceptors that stimulate thirst and vasopressin secretion.
initiates hypovolemia.
is the weakest portion of the blood-brain barrier.
Angiotensin is _____ which _____ the blood brain barrier.
both a peptide and a hormone; does not cross
a peptide; crosses
both a hormone and a transmitter substance; crosses
an enzyme; does not cross
Angiotensin
blocks vasopressin secretion.
lowers blood pressure.
stimulates aldosterone secretion.
increases urine output.
The subfornical organ
does not appear to have any angiotensin receptors.
secretes saralasin which blocks angiotensin.
is the site of action of angiotensin.
breaks down angiotensin.
The effect of the subfornical organ on drinking occur through its _____ outputs
autonomic
behavioral
endocrine
metabolic
The angiotensin receptors in the median preoptic nucleus
are stimulated by angiotensin that crosses the blood-brain barrier.
detect angiotensin secreted as a transmitter substance by terminal buttons there.
are an example of the redundant systems that have evolved in the brain.
control the secretion of vasopressin
Lesions of the zona incerta
have no effect on the stimuli for volumetric thirst.
stimulate salt intake.
abolish drinking in response to injections of the colloid polyethylene glycol.
produce a profound deficit in osmometric drinking.
Where does aldosterone appear to exert its behavioral effects?
medial nucleus of the amygdala
lateral hypothalamus
zona incerta
median preoptic nucleus
Rats who received preloads of water in the mouth drank _____ than rats who received the preloads in the stomach.
more
less
the same amount of water
the same amount of water, but more slowly
Research that used an esophageal fistula to prevent water from reaching the stomach suggest that satiety receptors in the mouth and throat
play a greater role that first believed.
have a short-lived effect.
cannot signal satiety if connections with stomach receptors are blocked.
and stomach are of equal importance.
When the pylorus of an experimental animal is constricted by a noose stomach contents
back up into the esophagus and throat
fall to the ground.
continue to diffuse into the blood through the capillaries.
cannot leave the stomach.
Atrial natriuretic peptide stimulates the
excretion of sodium.
secretion of renin.
retention of water.
elevation of blood volume.
Chapter 13
24
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The short-term fuel reservoir is located in __________ and is filled with __________.
adipose tissue; triglycerides
digestive tract; amino acids
pancreas; glucose
the cells of the liver and muscles; glycogen
During the fasting phase of metabolism
supplies of glucose are abundant.
most cells live on fatty acids.
glycerol and fatty acids are converted into triglycerides.
excess nutrients are stored in the liver, muscles, and adipose tissue.
During the absorptive phase of metabolism
the blood level of glucose rises.
the pancreas ceases to secrete insulin.
proteins, carbohydrates, and fats are used to fuel the cells of the body.
glucose dissolves in fats and is stored in adipose tissue.
As recorded in their diaries, subjects ate the most food when
the food was familiar.
the food had a sweet taste.
other people were present.
they were alone.
Omnivores
are limited by the distribution of their food.
are completely dependent on one type of food.
do not obtain all essential nutrients from one type of food.
eat only meat.
Conditioned flavor aversions
confer an evolutionary advantage on some species and do not occur by chance.
permit omnivores to avoid foods that are dangerous.
can interfere with mechanisms that regulate total body weight.
are short-lived.
Lipoprivation can be induced by injections of
insulin.
2-DG.
capsaicin.
methyl palmoxirate (MP).
Detectors in the liver that signal lipoprivic hunger appear to be sensitive to
changes in their own internal rate of metabolism.
blood level of particular nutrients.
availability of insulin.
the amount of lipids stored in adipose tissue.
Using a pyloric cuff, researchers demonstrated that the
volume of stomach contents is more important than its nutritive content for satiety.
stomach contains receptors that prevent overeating.
stomach contains receptors that monitor the nutritive value of its contents.
stomach communicated information about satiety through the vagus nerve.
Injections of cholecystokinin (CCK)
activate stretch receptors in the stomach.
promote stomach emptying.
stimulate a carbohydrate appetite.
suppress eating.
By injecting glucose and fructose into the hepatic portal vein, researchers confirmed that the liver
contains receptors that respond when the liver receives nutrients from the intestines.
metabolizes sugars.
is the first organ to signal satiety.
breaks down fatty acids.
If ob mice are given an injection of leptin
they lose weight rapidly because they develop diabetes and cannot metabolize glucose.
they eat even greater quantities of food.
their weight returns to normal.
eating behavior is not affected.
Lesions of the area postrema and nucleus of the solitary tract (AP/NST)
stimulate a carbohydrate appetite.
reduce the ability to distinguish between flavors.
stimulate fos production.
abolish both glucoprivic and lipoprivic feeding.
Lesions of the __________ produce __________ and lesions of the __________ abolish __________.
lateral hypothalamus; hunger; ventromedial hypothalamus; satiety
ventromedial hypothalamus; overeating; lateral hypothalamus; eating.
paraventricular nucleus; overeating; ventromedial hypothalamus; undereating
ventromedial hypothalamus; satiety; paraventricular nucleus; obesity
Neuropeptide Y , which is secreted by neurons in the _____, _____.
area postrema; controls hormones that regulate the fasting phase of metabolism.
paraventricular nucleus; causes a rapid decline in blood glucose levels.
arcuate nucleus; stimulates ravenous eating.
ventromedial hypothalamus; abolishes eating.
Norepinephrine __________ carbohydrate intake and serotonin __________ it.
abolishes; stimulates
increases; decreases
stimulates; increases
decreases; increases
Leptin is _____
secreted by well-fed adipose tissue and inhibits eating.
a by-product of protein metabolism and inhibits the release of neuropeptide Y.
secreted by the liver during the fasting phase of metabolism and decreases metabolic rate.
secreted by neurons in the brain and does not cross the blood-brain barrier.
Which one of these conditions appears to contribute least to overeating and obesity?
social customs concerning food
unhappiness and depression
hereditary differences
an efficient metabolism
People with an efficient metabolism
must eat more food to maintain their body weight.
have difficulty loosing weight even on a reduced calorie diet.
have difficulty matching food intake to physical activity.
do not have any calories left over for deposit in long-term nutrient reservoirs.
The agouti mouse has a mutation of the gene responsible for the production of _____ receptors.
neuropeptide Y (NPY)
leptin
melanocortin-4
galanin
Gastroplasty, a surgical procedure to help obese people loose weight, results in
feelings of satiety when a small amount of food is eaten.
nausea when too much food is eaten.
increased secretion of CCK
nimiety when a small amount of food is eaten.
Fenfluramine, a drug that helps obese people loose weight, stimulates the release of
neuropeptide Y.
insulin.
serotonin.
norepinephrine.
Anorexics
are unresponsive to the effects of food.
do not experience hunger.
have an intense fear of becoming obese.
attempt to reduce their need for calories by reducing physical activity.
The cerebrospinal fluid of anorexics contains elevated levels of
neuropeptide Y.
cholecystokinin (CCK).
fenfluramine.
galanin.
Chapter 14
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In classical conditioning, the unconditional stimulus
always elicits the species-typical response.
is a neutral stimulus.
elicits the species-typical response if it has previously been paired with the conditional stimulus.
initially has little effect on behavior.
Instrumental conditioning results from an association between
two stimuli.
a stimulus and a response.
a conditional and an unconditional stimulus.
two responses.
The Hebb rule states that a synapse will be strengthened if it repeatedly become active _____ the _____ neuron fires.
at the same time; presynaptic
soon after; presynaptic
about the same time; postsynaptic
before; postsynaptic
In order for long-term potentiation to occur
the presynaptic membrane must be depolarized at the same time that the synapses are active.
the postsynaptic membrane must be depolarized at the same time that the synapses are active.
weak and strong synapses to a single neuron must be stimulated at approximately the same time.
a series of electrical pulses must be delivered at a slow rate.
The size of the
population EPSP was predicted by the Hebb rule.
first population EPSP indicates the strength of synaptic connections before long-term potentiation takes place.
population EPSP decreases if long-term potentiation has taken place.
population EPSP slowly increases for up to 40 hours if long-term potentiation has taken place.
NMDA receptors
control calcium ion channels.
are found in highest concentration in the mossy fibers of field CA3.
detect the presence of magnesium.
are blocked by glutamate.
One of the effects of long-term potentiation is a(n)
increase in the number of calcium-dependent enzymes.
increase in the amount of postsynaptic thickening of neurons in the hippocampal formation.
decrease in protein synthesis in the cell body.
increase in the number of postsynaptic AMPA receptors.
Nitric oxide
blocks the effects of calcium.
may increase the number of glutamate receptors.
may be produced in the dendritic spines.
lasts for a long time and can diffuse the entire length of a postsynaptic axon.
Long-term depression may result from
sustained increases in protein synthesis in the cell body.
the gradual atrophy of the dendrites that transmit chemical messages to the cell.
low-frequency stimulation of the synaptic inputs to a cell.
increased sensitivity of protein kinases to calcium.
In a delayed matching-to-sample task, the "delay" is the interval
between teaching the subject the task and testing to see whether it has learned it.
between the sample stimulus and the choices.
between successive trials.
a subject must pause before responding.
In a delayed matching-to-sample task, neurons in inferior temporal cortex continued to respond during the delay interval, which suggests that these neurons are parts of circuits
involved in instrumental conditioning.
responsible for reinforcement.
involved in excitation rather than inhibition.
that remember that a particular stimulus was presented.
The release of _____ from neurons in the _____ causes neurons in the auditory cortex _____.
acetylcholine; nucleus basalis; to become more sensitive to the auditory input they are receiving
glutamate; medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus; to fail to differentiate between tones of different frequencies
calcium; NMDA receptors; to respond more vigorously to the presence of calcium
nitric oxide synthase; presynaptic neuron; to increase protein synthesis necessary for long-term potentiation.
When an animal is trained to make a classically conditioned emotional response by pairing a tone and a foot shock, the tone is the
US.
CS.
US.
UR.
The synaptic changes that produce the classically conditioned emotional response occurs in the
substantia nigra and the ventral tegmental area.
auditory cortex and the nucleus accumbens
MGm and the basolateral amygdala.
medial forebrain bundle.
A classically conditioned response will disappear if the
US is not associated with a biological need.
CS is presented repeated by itself.
CR was originally a behavior the animal had never made before.
CR does not have favorable outcomes.
The principal nuclei of the basal ganglia are the
caudate nucleus, the putamen, and the globus pallidus.
amygdala, the substantia nigra, and the putamen.
neostriatum and the substantia nigra.
caudate nucleus, globus pallidus, and subthalamic nucleus.
People with Parkinson's disease who participated in an experiment to predict the weather from a set of cards
performed as well as normal subjects.
learned the task, but never improved their performance.
learned the task more slowly than normal subjects.
never learned the task.
Monkeys with lesions of the supplementary motor cortex never learned to extend their arm through an opening in the cage because they
had lesion-induced difficulties with coordination.
were no longer able to learn a response through instrumental conditioning.
could not learn to make a self-initiated response.
had lesion-induced deficits in visual perception.
If you wished to have the best chance of an animal pressing a lever to receive reinforcing brain stimulation, where would you place an electrode?
medial forebrain bundle
MGm
nucleus accumbens
premotor cortex
When rats trained to go through a runway to receive reinforcing electrical brain stimulation were given a drug that blocks dopamine receptors, the drug __________ the reinforcing effects of brain stimulation.
increased
replaced
reduced
abolished
The effects of reinforcing brain stimulation are _____ those of natural reinforcers.
weaker than
greater than
similar to
not as long-lasting as
An appetitive stimulus
reinforces behavior only under certain conditions.
facilitates the synthesis of acetylcholine.
inhibits the release of dopamine.
activates the reinforcement system only when the animal is not engaging in an appetitive behavior.
Infusion of dopamine or cocaine through a micropipette __________ the rate of firing of CA1 pyramidal neurons if the infusions occurred __________ spontaneous bursts of action potentials.
increased; during
increased; following
decreased; during
decreased; following
Injections of a dopamine blocker into the nucleus accumbens appears
to make animals less motivated to perform an instrumentally conditioned response.
to alter animals' ability to respond to natural reinforcers, such as food.
to make animals less sensitive to biological drives.
to prevent animals from recognizing familiar stimuli.
Chapter 15
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Anterograde amnesia can best be described as
a failure of short-term memory.
a failure to establish new nondeclarative memories.
the loss of relational learning.
a diminished sense of time.
Korsakoff's syndrome sometime results from _____that accompanies chronic alcoholism.
a thiamine deficiency
glucose intolerance
a folic acid deficiency
the pyruvate deficiency
Patient H.M. is
aware of his disorder.
bored by repetitive tasks.
unable to learn any new information.
frustrated by his difficulty in following a conversation.
When patients with anterograde amnesia are retested on an incomplete drawing task they
showed a priming effect for familiar objects only.
showed a priming effect for geometric patterns but not for real objects.
showed a priming effect for all stimuli.
did not show any signs of a priming effect.
Patients who showed a conditioned emotional response to a blue light that preceded a loud boat horn had bilateral damage to the
hippocampus.
amygdala.
mammillary bodies.
thalamus.
Nondeclarative memories
are a form of perceptual memory.
are usually expressed in writing.
fade more quickly than declarative memories.
do not require deliberate efforts to learn information.
What we remember about an episode that permits us to store it in long-term memory
are a few striking details.
are the events and the context in which they occur.
is the information that is inconsistent with what we already know.
is the information about it that we rehearse.
You looked up the telephone number, but went to let the dog in before making the call and found you had forgotten the number. This occurred because
of the phenomenon of retrograde amnesia.
long-term memories are difficult to retrieve.
the phone number exceeded the capacity of short-term memory.
insufficient rehearsal did not enable short-term memory to be converted into long-term memory.
The most important input to the hippocampal formation is the
anterior thalamus.
locus coeruleus
entorhinal cortex.
subiculum.
Neurons in field CA1 of the hippocampus are easily damaged when metabolic disturbances set off a series of events that include the
rapid proliferation of NMDA receptors.
desynchronized firing of presynaptic axons.
entry of calcium into the neurons resulting in excessively high levels of intracellular calcium.
release serotonin at abnormally high levels by serotonergic terminal buttons.
Confabulation, a symptom of Korsakoff's syndrome, may be caused by damage to the
prefrontal cortex.
mammillary bodies.
perirhinal cortex
amygdala.
During testing, a patient made many more "false alarms" when the
researcher distracted him.
incorrect stimulus resembled one he had previously seen or heard.
length of time between training and testing increased.
number of choices increased.
Rats with hippocampal lesions could not efficiently visit the arms of a radial maze because they could not
distinguish between the many arms of the maze.
learn which arms never contained food.
establish an initial bearing.
remember where they had just been.
Information in reference memory is
constantly being replaced.
more difficult to retrieve than information in working memory.
relatively permanent.
episodic in nature.
Rats are trained in a milk maze
to reduce the effects of tactile stimulation.
to test their spatial perception and memory.
to avoid using food as a reinforcing stimulus.
to assess their stimulus-response learning.
How do rats in a symmetrical chamber react when researchers move environmental stimuli as a group?
Rats move toward the center of the chamber.
Rats tend to remain in one location.
Rats run constantly around the perimeter of the chamber.
Rats reorient their responses accordingly.
The hippocampus appears to receive its spatial information through the
fornix.
entorhinal cortex.
amygdala.
medial septum.
Place cells in primates tend to respond best to
where the animal is located.
where the animal is looking.
the animal's internally generated stimuli.
the direction of the animal's locomotion.
What is the source of theta rhythms?
glutamatergic axons from the dentate gyrus
serotonergic axons from the fornix
dopaminergic axons from the substantia nigra
acetylcholinergic axons from the medial septum
Theta behaviors closely associated with hippocampal theta activity include
ingestive behaviors.
wakefulness and sleep
reproductive behaviors.
exploration or investigation.
Depolarizing stimulation that coincided with the peaks of theta waves resulted in _____.
depression
disorientation of hippocampal place cells
long-term potentiation
disruption of working memory
The original function of the hippocampus may have been
to regulate an animal's circadian rhythms.
to help an animal recognize new stimuli.
to regulate an animal's metabolism in response to environmental changes.
to help an animal navigate in its environment.
Stimulation of the ventral angular bundle _____ long-term potentiation in the basolateral amygdala.
produced.
abolished.
improved
had no effect on
Rolls suggests that neurons in field CA3 function as an autoassociator-that is, they
can produce the appropriate output from fragments of the original pattern.
link together the structures that make up the hippocampal formation.
along with the recurrent collaterals provide an alternate system of connections that can minimize the effects of brain damage.
somehow connecting the hippocampal formation with association cortex.Answers for Self Tests
Chapter 16
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Most observations on the physiology of language have been made through work with subjects who have sustained
head injuries.
cerebrovascular accidents.
brain tumors.
infections.
When we say that verbal behavior is a lateralized function, we mean that
both hemispheres of the brain are equally important for speech.
both hemispheres of the brain have the capacity to perform all aspects of speech.
one hemisphere is dominant for speech and the other hemisphere plays no role.
one hemisphere is dominant for speech and the other hemisphere plays a smaller role.
People with Broca's aphasia
speak fluently, but have anomia.
speak fluently, but have poor comprehension.
speak slowly, with difficulty, but grammatically.
speak slowly, with difficulty, but with meaning.
Anomia is a difficulty in
finding the correct word to describe an object, action, or situation.
pronouncing abstract, but not concrete, words.
repeating sequences longer than three words.
using function and content words.
People with Wernicke's aphasia
speak fluently but without meaning and have poor comprehension.
speak haltingly but with meaning and have excellent comprehension.
can no longer speak but still comprehend the speech of others.
speak sporadically but to the point.
Research with people who have transcortical sensory aphasia suggests that
the ability to understand is necessary for accurate memorization.
recognition, repetition, and rhythm are inseparable aspects of speech production.
the ability to speak spontaneously is necessary in order to repeat what is heard.
brain mechanisms needed for recognition and comprehension of speech are different.
Pure word deafness is the inability
to comprehend the meaning of words.
to understand the speech of others.
to communicate orally with others.
to use grammatical constructions.
Damage to the posterior language area disrupts the ability to
recognize written or spoken words.
learn new written or spoken words.
understand words and produce meaningful speech.
understand particular categories of words.
Which is not true of the arcuate fasciculus?
It conveys meanings of words but not sounds.
It conveys sounds of words but not meanings.
It is an arch-shaped bundle that connects Wernicke's area and Broca's area.
Damage results in conduction aphasia.
Researchers suggest that people with conduction aphasia can repeat words only if they
are spelled regularly.
have meaning.
have no threatening emotional content.
are short.
Aphasia in deaf people
results in an inability to lipread, and is caused by damage to the right hemisphere, which is involved in recognizing faces.
is hard to determine, because sign language is not a full-fledged language.
is caused by right hemisphere damage, because sign language has a visual, spatial nature.
is caused by left hemisphere damage, as it is in hearing people.
Which of the following disorders is characterized by poor prosody?
Wernicke's aphasia
Broca's aphasia
anomic aphasia
conduction aphasia
Pure alexia is a(n) _______________ disorder and patients __________.
perceptual; can no longer read, but can still write
motor; can no longer read or write
sensory; can read but no longer write
auditory; can read and write silently but cannot read or spell aloud
Research using a PET scanner to measure regional cerebral blood flow suggests that a region of extrastriate cortex is important for
recognition of familiar combinations of letters.
encoding acoustical information about the sounds of letters.
associating words with their meanings.
reading speed.
Surface dyslexia involves a deficit in
phonetic reading.
b. whole-word reading.
letter-to-sound decoding.
comprehension only; reading is intact.
People with phonological dyslexia will have difficulty reading
function words.
abstract words.
nonwords.
content words.
In which form of dyslexia do people fail to comprehend what they read?
word-form dyslexia
phonological dyslexia
direct dyslexia
surface dyslexia
Studies of Japanese people with localized brain damage who have difficulty reading kana or kanji symbols provide evidence
for reading forms based on the type of alphabet used in the language.
for a universal reading form that involves brain mechanisms that existed before the invention of writing.
that the brain contains redundant neural circuits involved in reading.
for two different forms of reading that involve different brain mechanisms.
The fact that it is more difficult to write the word antidisestablishmentarianism while singing suggests that
the "auditory image" of words expressed in music is stronger than the image of words expressed in speech.
the ability to write some words depends on being able to articulate them subvocally.
it is more difficult to understand the spoken (or sung) word than the written word.
the ability to write words depends on the strength of the "auditory image" that is evoked.
People with phonological dysgraphia __________ words and then write them.
visually imagine
sound out
finger-spell
rehearse
People with orthographic dysgraphia have difficulty spelling and writing
compound words.
nonwords.
regular words.
irregular words.
Researchers who examined the brains of deceased people with developmental dyslexia found abnormalities in the
corpus callosum.
arcuate fasciculus.
planum temporale.
angular gyrus.
Researchers have noted a relationship between developmental dyslexias,
right-handedness, and muscular coordination.
left-handedness, and immune disorders.
right-handedness, and speech difficulties.
ambidexterity, and longevity.
All of the following support the hypothesis that dyslexia can result from abnormal input to the parietal lobe caused by an abnormal magnocellular system, except:
There is evidence of disorganized magnocellular layers in dyslexics.
Dyslexics have trouble with spatial perception and of movements in space.
Differences have been recorded in the primary visual cortex of dyslexics.
Dyslexics complain that when they try to read, letters seem to move around.
Chapter 17
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If the tendency to develop schizophrenia is heritable
the percentage of dizygotic twins concordant for schizophrenia will be higher than that of monozygotic twins.
the incidence of schizophrenia in adopted children with biological schizophrenic parents will be higher than that of the general population.
environment plays no role in the development of the disease.
the disease will be milder if only one biological parent is schizophrenic.
The fact that not all children of two schizophrenic parents become schizophrenic suggests that
schizophrenia results from a single faulty gene.
having schizophrenic parents may increase susceptibility to the disease.
the "schizophrenia gene" is recessive.
schizophrenia is not caused by genetic factors.
All drugs that relieve the positive symptoms of schizophrenia
are dopamine agonists.
block dopamine reuptake.
are dopamine antagonists.
block dopamine autoreceptors.
Which of the following does not support the notion that reinforcement pathways play a role in schizophrenia?
Schizophrenics report feelings of elation and euphoria at the beginning of a schizophrenic episode.
Cocaine and amphetamine release dopamine in reinforcement pathways and can cause psychotic symptoms.
One of the most effective antipsychotic drugs, clozapine, inhibits dopamine in the nucleus accumbens which is part of the reinforcement circuit.
The neostriatum probably plays a more important role in schizophrenia than parts of the brain involved in reinforcement.
Tardive dyskinesia
is found in 40 percent of patients receiving antipsychotic medications.
is most common after treatment with the drug clozapine.
is a parkinsonian side effect of antipsychotic medications.
may be due to dopamine receptor supersensitivity.
Careful study of CT and MRI scans indicates that schizophrenics have
enlarged ventricles.
fewer convolutions of the cortex.
atrophy of the neostriatum.
a thicker corpus callosum.
Tissue or brain abnormalities have been observed in all of the following areas of schizophrenics' brains except:
frontal lobes
medial diencephalon
cerebellum
temporal lobes
The "seasonality effect" in schizophrenia refers to
the increased likelihood that people born in the summer months develop schizophrenia.
the increased likelihood that people born in the winter months develop schizophrenia.
the intensification of schizophrenic symptoms in the winter months.
the increased incidence of schizophrenia in countries farther from the equator.
Which of the following supports the hypothesis that schizophrenia involves abnormal prenatal brain development?
NADPH-d distribution in the frontal and temporal lobes was abnormal in a group of deceased schizophrenics.
MRI scans show smaller ventricles in the brains of monozygotic twins who are discordant for schizophrenia.
The left hippocampus does not develop as rapidly in schizophrenics compared to nonschizophrenics.
The fingerprint patterns of twins discordant for schizophrenia are nearly identical.
On tests of frontal lobe function, such as the Wisconsin Card Sort Test, schizophrenics do not:
perform as poorly as people with damage to the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.
show evidence of "hypofrontality."
show increased blood flow to the frontal lobes while performing this task.
have difficulty changing tasks.
Weinberger and colleagues propose that hypofrontality may be caused by
increased dopamine input to the frontal lobes.
decreased dopamine input to the frontal lobes.
increased dopamine input to the temporal lobes.
decreased dopamine input to the temporal lobes.
Hyperactivity of dopaminergic neurons in the nucleus accumbens
accounts for the negative symptoms of schizophrenia.
results from high activity of glutamate neurons that originate in the prefrontal cortex.
involves increased receptor sensitivity in response to decreased tonic released of dopamine.
is enhanced by drugs like amperozide.
Bipolar disorder is characterized by
unremitting or episodic depression without periods of mania and afflicts more women than men.
mania without periods of depression and afflicts more women than men.
alternating bouts of depression followed by periods of normal affect and afflicts more men than women.
alternating bouts of mania and depression and afflicts men and women about equally.
Studies of the genetic basis of affective disorders have shown that
there is little evidence in favor of a genetic component in these disorders.
concordance rates for monozygotic twins are considerable higher than concordance rates for dizygotic twins.
there is a genetic basis for unipolar depression but not bipolar disorder.
a gene on chromosome 11 is definitely involved in bipolar disorder.
MAO inhibitors are not routinely used to treat depression because they
cause memory loss.
increase pressor amines (the cheese effect).
are simply not as effective as other drugs.
cause hypotension (lowered blood pressure).
A serious side effect of frequent electroconvulsive therapy is
disturbances in biological rhythms.
elevated blood pressure.
long-lasting memory impairments.
suppression of normal feelings of emotion.
All of the following are true of lithium except:
It is typically administered during the manic phase of bipolar disorder.
It does not alter normal emotions or intellectual functioning.
It may act in the brain by stabilizing populations of receptors for certain transmitter substances.
It is a very effective treatment, so compliance is not a problem.
The monoamine hypothesis suggests that depression is a result of _____ of monoaminergic neurons.
insufficient activity
excessive numbers
overactivity
the proliferation
Depressed individuals fed a diet low in tryptophan and a cocktail high in other amino acids
become manic.
relapse into depression.
show changes in cognition but not affect.
have elevated levels of serotonin metabolites.
Subsensitivity of postsynaptic noradrenergic receptors
occurs two to three weeks after symptoms of depression improve.
follows treatment of depression with reserpine.
occurs immediately after starting antidepressant treatment.
occurs following treatment with antidepressant drugs, ECT, and sleep deprivation.
Which two neurotransmitters may play the greatest role in depression?
dopamine and norepinephrine
dopamine and serotonin
norepinephrine and serotonin
dopamine and glutamate
People whose depression is relieved by total sleep deprivation
begin to feel better immediately.
feel better in the morning than in the evening.
must limit their sleep to brief naps.
gradually feel better over the course of several weeks.
Wu and Bunney suggested that sleep deprivation causes an improvement in depressive symptoms because
during sleep a depressogenic substance is produced that needs to be metabolized during waking hours.
waking produces a substance with antidepressant effects.
REM sleep allows a person to actively rehearse the life events that may be causing depression.
it causes memory loss.
An effective treatment for seasonal affective disorder is
avoidance of temperature changes, especially at night.
infrequent naps to regulate the amount of REM sleep.
a fixed meal schedule to minimize changes in metabolic rate.
exposure to several hours of bright light each day.
Chapter 18
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People with panic disorder suffer from anticipatory anxiety, which is
a brief interval of unrealistic fear that precedes a panic attack.
the first stage of a panic attack.
often sufficient to trigger a panic attack.
the fear another panic attack will strike.
Studies concerning the genetic basis of panic disorder have shown
that 50 percent of the first degree relatives of a person with panic disorder also have panic disorder.
the concordance rate for monozygotic twins is similar to that found in dizygotic twins.
that panic disorder may be caused by a single, dominant gene.
that environmental factors outweigh genetic factors in the etiology of this disorder.
An injection of __________ may cause a panic attack in susceptible people.
alcohol
lactic acid
benzodiazepine
lithium carbonate
All of the following substances have been implicated in panic disorder except:
epinephrine
serotonin
cholecystokinin
benzodiazepine
People suffering from obsessive-compulsive disorder
discuss their behavior openly.
have periodic episodes of mania.
recognize that their thoughts and behaviors are senseless.
are often insomniacs.
Obsessive-compulsive disorder has been linked to all of the following except:
exposure to mumps
Tourette's syndrome
birth trauma
encephalitis
PET scans have recorded abnormal activity in all of the following regions of the brains of patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder except:
a. prefrontal cortex
cingulate cortex
basal ganglia
cerebellum
All effective antiobsessional drugs
block dopamine receptors.
are MAO antagonists.
increases the sensitivity of the GABA binding site.
block the reuptake of 5-HT.
Which is not true of the language of autistic children?
It is abnormal or even nonexistent.
It often includes repetition of what others have said.
It improves in late adolescence.
It is often self-centered or self-interested.
Frith's model of autism as the inability to see the world from others' points of view does not predict which of the following symptoms of the disorder?
abnormal social relationships
stereotyped movements
impaired imagination
inability to predict and explain other people's behavior
The best evidence for the genetic basis of autism comes from
twin studies showing near-100 percent concordance for monozygotic twins.
examination of the extended family tree.
family studies which show that most affected families have more than one autistic child.
all of the above.
Nongenetic causes of autism include
hydrocephalus.
PKU.
exposure to cytomegalovirus.
elevated levels of CCK.
Select the correct statement about stress.
Short-term exposure to stressors typically causes conditions such as ulcers.
The fight-or-flight response is a maladaptive reaction to stressors.
Emotional responses are generally useful and adaptive, but can be hazardous if continuous rather than episodic.
The deleterious effects of stress on health generally have been over-emphasized by the media; recent research does not support this link.
Which of the following is not a stress-related hormone released by the adrenal glands?
epinephrine
cortisol
ACTH
norepinephrine
The secretion of glucocorticoids is controlled by neurons in the _____and glucocorticoid receptors are _____.
paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus; contained in almost every cell of the body.
central nucleus of the amygdala; found in highest concentration in the adrenal glands.
hippocampal formation; especially susceptible to the effects of stress.
hypothalamus; the first to signal a rise in blood pressure.
Long-term stress increases the secretion of _____ which may be responsible for _____.
aldosterone; cardiovascular disease
epinephrine; sodium metabolism
glucocorticoids; the harmful effects of stress
antigens; autoimmune diseases
Young vervet monkeys near the bottom of the social hierarchy who experienced almost constant stress
failed to learn normal group coping responses.
engaged in more fight-or-flight responses than other young monkeys who were not subjected to stress.
later showed the highest rates of coronary artery disease.
sustained severe damage to the hippocampal formation.
Posttraumatic stress disorder
only strikes in late adolescence or early adulthood.
is sometimes associated with damage to the hippocampal formation.
is sometimes associated with damage to the anterior cingulate gyrus.
rarely occurs in subjects with the A1 allele.
Which of the following is not a risk factor for cardiovascular disease?
high blood pressure and high cholesterol
exposure to the cold pressor test
genetic differences in brain chemistry
high emotional reactivity
Why did the emotional response of a group of rats to inescapable shock disappear after they learned a coping response?
The pain was diminished.
The number of shocks was reduced.
Their stomach ulcers healed.
They were permitted some control over the situation.
The neural mechanisms responsible for coping responses may involve the secretion of
endogenous opioids.
glucocorticoids.
endogenous benzodiazepines.
GABA.
The immune system develops _____ through exposure to _____.
antibodies; antigens
interferon; antibodies
antigens; antibodies
antibodies; B-lymphocytes
Cytokines
are the body's first defense against malignant tumors.
stimulate cell division.
develop in the bone marrow.
are unique proteins on the surface of infectious microorganisms
Which of the following is true of the immunoglobulin, IgA?
High levels of IgA are associated with an unhappy mood in the subject.
Stress has no effect on the production of IgA.
IgA is secreted in the nose, mouth, throat, and lungs, and acts as a defense against infection.
Stress stimulates the production of IgA.
Chapter 19
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Which of the following is not true of drug use in general?
Alcohol is one of the oldest drugs.
Consciousness-changing drugs are sometimes used in religious ceremonies.
Drugs have been cultivated around the world.
Drug use is unique to modern Western cultures.
All of the following are linked to abuse of alcohol except:
drug-induced psychosis.
cirrhosis of the liver.
mental retardation in infants exposed in utero.
Korsakoff's syndrome.
Which statement about drug addiction is not true?
Drug addiction is caused by physical dependence.
Withdrawal symptoms and tolerance are the result of compensatory mechanisms.
The withdrawal symptoms that occur in heroin addicts are less dangerous than those that occur in alcoholics.
Withdrawal symptoms are primarily the opposite of the effects of the drug itself.
The most appropriate definition of drug addiction would emphasize
negative personal, legal, and social effects of drug taking.
physical dependence rather than psychological dependence.
tolerance and withdrawal symptoms.
an established pattern of compulsive drug-taking behavior.
Drugs that do not produce physical dependence
can still be addictive.
do not cause tolerance and withdrawal symptoms.
have no reinforcing effects on behavior.
have no effect on the brain.
All of the following are true of positive reinforcement except:
Positive reinforcement increases the likelihood of the most recent response.
A reinforcing stimulus is most effective if it occurs immediately after the behavior.
Positive reinforcement works better in humans than in laboratory animals.
Immediacy of reinforcement takes precedence over quantity.
Addictive drugs can trigger the release of dopamine in the nucleus accumbens by
stimulating the reuptake of dopamine by terminal buttons.
blocking the secretion of endogenous opioids.
increasing the activity of dopaminergic neurons of the mesolimbic system.
inhibiting the postsynaptic effects of dopamine.
Lamb et al. (1991) found that subjects with a history of heroin abuse
push a lever very slowly.
fail to push a lever for "worthless" doses of morphine.
show that positive reinforcement requires pleasurable stimuli.
show that positive reinforcement does not necessarily equal pleasure.
Negative reinforcement does not refer to
a behavior that reduces an aversive stimulus.
a response that makes an unpleasant stimulus occur.
the capacity of alcohol to relieve feelings of anxiety.
an addict suffering from withdrawal symptoms who takes some of the drug.
All of the following are compensatory mechanisms that have been proposed to explain the phenomena of tolerance to and withdrawal from drugs except
down regulation of opiate receptors.
reduced effects of opioid receptors on physiological processes within cells on which they are found.
classical conditioning of homeostatic response to environmental stimuli.
dopamine receptors in the nucleus accumbens become supersensitive.
What parts of the brain may be involved in a craving for addictive drugs?
dorsolateral prefrontal cortex, amygdala, and cerebellum
amygdala, periaqueductal gray matter
cerebellum, nucleus accumbens, reticular formation
nucleus accumbens, preoptic area, hippocampus
Which stimuli will probably not induce drug-seeking behavior?
the priming effect of a small dose
stressful situations
fatigue
the sight of drug-related paraphernalia
The reinforcing aspect of opiate drugs involves receptors in the
periaqueductal gray matter.
nucleus accumbens.
preoptic area.
reticular formation.
Which opiate receptors are responsible for the reinforcing effects of opiates?
mu
delta
kappa
alpha
Which of the following is not true of CREB?
CREB stands for cyclic AMP-responsive enzyme-bonding protein.
It is involved in the intracellular processes involved in the development of withdrawal symptoms of opiates.
It plays a role in regulating the activity of some genes.
It binds with a second messenger.
Cocaine
causes strong physical dependence.
is a dopamine antagonist.
may be the most effective reinforcer of all available drugs.
produces the same physical and behavioral effects as heroin.
Amphetamine
causes dopamine transporters to run in reverse.
stimulates the release of endogenous opiates.
increases the sensitivity of GABA receptors.
affects an enzyme in the second messenger system.
Which of the following is not true about nicotine?
It has considerable addictive potential.
It stimulates acetylcholine receptors.
It is self-administered in the form of tobacco, but not by animals.
It causes dopamine release in the nucleus accumbens.
Which of the following is not true of alcohol?
It is the leading cause of mental retardation in children whose mothers consumed alcohol while pregnant.
It results in sedation and incoordination at low doses.
It produces both positive and negative reinforcement.
Its anxiolytic effects are observed in both humans and animals.
The anxiolytic effect of alcohol
reduces the discomfort of anxiety.
forces the drinker to consume more and more to feel the same effects.
reinforces social controls on behavior.
provides positive reinforcement.
The effects of alcohol and barbiturates are not
additive.
sedative.
excitatory.
potentially fatal.
Marijuana may affect short-term memory by disrupting the normal function of the
acetylcholine receptors.
GABA receptors.
nucleus accumbens.
hippocampus.
Steady drinkers are most likely to
be male; have a biological parent who is a steady drinker; begin drinking late in life.
be male; have a father who is a steady drinker; begin drinking early in life.
be female; have two biological parents who are alcoholic; drink secretly.
be either male or female; be exposed to a family environment of heavy drinking; begin drinking early in life.
The most common treatment for opiate addiction is
naltrexone treatment.
treatment with drugs that block dopamine receptors.
treatment with serotonin agonists.
methadone maintenance.